SSC CGL 12 September 2025 · Shift 1 · General Awareness — questions with answers · ShikshaSphere
Chapter 2 of 192
12 September 2025 · Shift 1
General Awareness
25 questions ~25 min readFree
25 questions
A
26
What artistic feature gives the Elephanta Caves a distinctive place among India's rock-cut heritage sites?
A.They display Vaishnavite themes illustrating the divine incarnations of Vishnu.
B.They are famed for Shaivite sculptures showcasing dynamic expressions through light and shadow.
C.They served as Jain monastic complexes during the Gupta era.
D.They were commissioned in the Mauryan period to promote Buddhist doctrines.
Solution
Elephanta Caves — Shaivite art
The Elephanta Caves (Gharapuri island, Mumbai) are celebrated for their monumental Shaivite sculptures, most famously the Trimurti (Maheshmurti) of Shiva.
The dramatic play of light and shadow inside the main cave lends the sculptures their dynamic expression — the feature that sets Elephanta apart.
They are a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1987) — option (b).
27
With reference to the Goncha Festival celebrated in Bastar, consider the following statements:
1. The festival involves the use of a bamboo-made mock gun called Tupki, which shoots the fruit of Goncha as bullets.
2. The custom of holding the Rath Yatra during the festival traces back to the Chalukya dynasty.
3. The chariot procession starts on Ashadha Shukla Dwitiya and concludes on Dashami.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Solution
Goncha Festival — Bastar
Goncha is the Bastar (Chhattisgarh) version of the Rath Yatra of Lord Jagannath, where devotees playfully fire Goncha fruit from bamboo Tupki guns — Statement 1 is correct.
The Rath Yatra custom in Bastar is a centuries-old royal tradition traced to the Chalukya rulers of Bastar — Statement 2 is correct.
The procession runs from Ashadha Shukla Dwitiya to Dashami — Statement 3 is also correct; hence option (d).
28
In Carnatic music, a laghu that comprises five beats is identified as which jaati?
A.Sankirna
B.Khanda
C.Chaturasra
D.Tisra
Solution
Carnatic music — Khanda jaati
In Carnatic tala theory, the jaati of a laghu is defined by its beat count.
Khanda jaati = 5 beats; Tisra = 3, Chaturasra = 4, Misra = 7 and Sankirna = 9.
Hence a five-beat laghu is Khanda — option (b).
29
Which of the following statements best describes the history and development of Judo?
A.The martial art of Judo was developed in Japan in 1882 by Jigoro Kano.
B.India’s first National Judo Championship was organized in 1980 at Mumbai.
C.Kalpana Devi became the first Indian to win a gold medal at the 2010 Judo Grand Prix.
D.Judo was officially included in the Olympic Games for the first time in 1972.
Solution
Judo — history
Judo was founded by Jigoro Kano in Japan in 1882 at the Kodokan Institute — Statement (a) is correct.
Judo actually entered the Olympics at Tokyo 1964, so option (d) is wrong; the other claims also do not match the record.
Hence option (a).
30
The 59th National Cross Country Championships 2025 is scheduled to be held at which venue and on what date?
A.February 10, 2025 - Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
B.January 12, 2025 - Meerut, Uttar Pradesh
C.March 15, 2025 - Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
D.April 12, 2025 - Jaipur, Rajasthan
Solution
National Cross Country 2025
The 59th National Cross Country Championships 2025 were held on 12 January 2025 at Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.
The event, conducted under the Athletics Federation of India, doubled as a selection trial for international cross-country events.
Hence option (b).
31
What is the principal structural objective of the 2024 India-UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (2024) within India's broader international investment framework?
A.It envisions the creation of mutual sovereign investment funds and a rupee-dirham swap mechanism.
B.It prioritises investor entry rights and mandates all arbitration to be conducted in the UAE.
C.It provides protection for investors post-establishment by guaranteeing equal and national treatment.
D.It seeks to standardise tax rules across the GCC under India’s digital trade regime.
Solution
India–UAE BIT 2024
The India–UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (in force from August 2024) follows India’s Model BIT approach.
Its core is post-establishment protection: once an investment is made, the investor is assured national treatment and protection against unfair measures, with defined dispute-settlement provisions.
Hence option (c).
32
The 2022-23 Santosh Trophy football final, in which Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to clinch the title after 54 years, was notably hosted in which international city?
A.Sharjah
B.Ajman
C.Riyadh
D.Abu Dhabi
Solution
Santosh Trophy final — Riyadh
For the first time, the semifinals and final of the Santosh Trophy (2022-23) were played abroad — in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
Karnataka beat Meghalaya 3-2 in the final to win the title after a 54-year gap.
Hence option (c).
33
Which statement most accurately describes the focus of Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought by Kavitha Iyer?
A.A fictional narrative about a family’s trials in a drought-hit rural area.
B.A historical analysis of monsoon fluctuations and ancient agrarian practices in India.
C.A non-fiction exploration of the human, social and ecological impacts of drought in rural India.
D.A colonial-era policy study examining water management frameworks under British rule.
Solution
Book — Landscapes of Loss
Journalist Kavitha Iyer's book is reportage-based non-fiction, built on years of ground reporting from Marathwada.
It documents how drought reshapes lives, livelihoods, migration and ecology in rural India — the human and social cost of water scarcity.
Hence option (c).
34
With reference to glacial landforms, consider the following statements:
1. Hanging valleys are typically located at higher elevations where they open into main glacial valleys.
2. The spurs of such valleys are often eroded and shaped into distinct triangular facets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Solution
Glacial landforms
Tributary glaciers erode less deeply than the trunk glacier, so their valleys are left "hanging" at higher levels above the main U-shaped valley — Statement 1 is correct.
The trunk glacier trims the projecting spurs into truncated spurs with triangular facets — Statement 2 is also correct.
Hence option (c).
35
In the context of ISRO's Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) mission, what does the Crew Escape System (CES) primarily ensure?
A.Safe orbital insertion of the crew module into Low Earth Orbit.
B.Emergency separation of the crew module from the rocket in case of launch failure.
C.Automatic docking of the spacecraft with an orbital station.
D.Controlled thermal protection of the capsule during atmospheric descent.
Solution
HLVM3 — Crew Escape System
The Crew Escape System sits atop the HLVM3 stack for the Gaganyaan mission.
If a launch anomaly occurs, its high-thrust motors pull the crew module rapidly away from the rocket to safety — emergency separation.
Hence option (b).
36
Which of the following statements correctly describe Justice Sanjiv Khanna?
1. He is serving as the 51st Chief Justice of India.
2. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud as the Chief Justice of India.
3. He assumed office in the year 2023.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.1, 2, and 3
Solution
Justice Sanjiv Khanna — 51st CJI
Justice Sanjiv Khanna took oath as the 51st Chief Justice of India — Statement 1 is correct.
He succeeded CJI D.Y. Chandrachud — Statement 2 is correct; but he assumed office on 11 November 2024, not 2023, so Statement 3 is wrong.
Hence only 1 and 2 — option (a).
37
Which of the following are among the key objectives outlined in India's National Population Policy (NPP), 2000?
1. To ensure free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years of age.
2. To increase fertility levels for sustaining demographic advantage.
3. To bring down the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1,000 live births.
4. To encourage delayed marriage, particularly for girls.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution
National Population Policy 2000
NPP 2000 aims at free and compulsory school education up to age 14, reducing IMR below 30 per 1,000 live births, and promoting delayed marriage for girls — objectives 1, 3 and 4.
Its central goal is to REDUCE fertility to replacement level (TFR 2.1), not increase it — objective 2 is contrary to the policy.
Hence 1, 3 and 4 only — option (c).
38
Which stage of cellular respiration produces the highest amount of energy (ATP)?
A.Glycolysis
B.Krebs cycle
C.Electron transport chain
D.Fermentation
Solution
Cellular respiration — ATP
Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle yield only 2 ATP each (net) directly.
The electron transport chain, using NADH and FADH₂, generates about 32–34 ATP by oxidative phosphorylation.
Hence the ETC produces the highest ATP — option (c).
39
Arrange the following events related to India's Zonal Councils in chronological order:
a. Eastern Zonal Council meeting - 2022
b. States Reorganisation Act passed
c. First meeting of the Central Zonal Council
A.c-b-a
B.b-c-a
C.a−b−c
D.b-a-c
Solution
Zonal Councils — chronology
Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 — so (b) comes first.
The first meetings of the councils, including the Central Zonal Council, followed in 1957.
The Eastern Zonal Council meeting of 2022 is the latest — order b-c-a; option (b).
40
What is the correct legal status of the Right to Property as provided under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution?
A.It is a fundamental right guaranteeing compensation for every property acquisition.
B.It authorises the State to take away property without following any legal procedure.
C.It is a constitutional legal right allowing deprivation of property only by authority of law.
D.It enables citizens to directly approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 for property protection.
Solution
Article 300A — Right to Property
The 44th Amendment (1978) removed property from Fundamental Rights and placed it in Article 300A.
Article 300A says no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law — a constitutional/legal right, not a fundamental one.
Being non-fundamental, Article 32 is not directly available for it — hence option (c).
41
In the case of a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis, the angular velocity of every particle in the body is:
A.Directly proportional to its distance from the axis of rotation
B.Equal to zero for all particles
C.Inversely proportional to its distance from the axis of rotation
D.The same for all particles of the body
Solution
Rigid body rotation
In a rigid body every particle completes the same angle in the same time about the fixed axis.
So the angular velocity ω is identical for all particles; only the linear speed v = rω varies with distance r.
Hence option (d).
42
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), the emphasis on using technology to ensure the reliability and authenticity of evidence primarily applies to:
A.Material objects recovered from crime scenes
B.Handwritten personal records and documents
C.Electronic and digital forms of evidence
D.Statements and confessions made orally
Solution
BSA — electronic evidence
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (replacing the Indian Evidence Act) expressly recognises electronic and digital records as primary evidence.
Its technology emphasis — certification, hashing and secure handling — is aimed at authenticating such digital evidence.
Hence option (c).
43
Read the following statements and choose the correct option:Assertion (A): The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme enables beneficiaries to access subsidised food grains from any Fair Price Shop across India.
Reason (R): This is made possible through the use of Aadhaar-based biometric authentication at ration shops.
A.Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B.Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C.A is true, but R is false
D.A is false, but R is true
Solution
ONORC (A–R)
ONORC gives nationwide ration-card portability — a beneficiary can lift entitled grains from any FPS in India — A is true.
This portability works through Aadhaar seeding and biometric authentication on ePoS devices at the shops — R is true and is precisely how A is achieved.
Hence option (a).
44
The traditional bamboo dance known as Cheraw, performed using crossed bamboo sticks, originates from which Indian state?
A.Manipur
B.Meghalaya
C.Arunachal Pradesh
D.Mizoram
Solution
Cheraw dance — Mizoram
Cheraw is the famous bamboo dance of Mizoram.
Men rhythmically clap bamboo staves near the ground while women dance in and out of the moving bamboos.
Hence option (d).
45
Which factor is mainly used to judge a country's strength in the Global Firepower Ranking 2025?
A.Economic growth
B.Cultural influence
C.Defense budget and military power
D.Health services
Solution
Global Firepower Ranking
The Global Firepower Index ranks nations on their conventional war-making capability.
Its PowerIndex draws on military manpower, equipment, logistics, resources and defence budget.
Hence defence budget and military power — option (c).
46
What is the main characteristic of cooperative industries?
A.They are controlled by the central government.
B.They are owned and managed together by the members who share profits and losses.
C.They are made only for export work.
D.They are run by foreign companies in India.
Solution
Cooperative industries
A cooperative is a voluntary association based on mutual help.
Members jointly own, manage and control the enterprise and share its profits and losses — e.g., AMUL, IFFCO.
Hence option (b).
47
After the 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution, education comes under which list?
A.Concurrent List
B.State List
C.Union List
D.Judicial List
Solution
Education — Concurrent List
Originally, education was a State subject.
The 42nd Amendment (1976) transferred education to the Concurrent List, letting both Parliament and state legislatures make laws on it.
Hence option (a).
48
What is the main goal of the National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) launched in 2024?
A.To set emission-trading limits
B.To check groundwater quality
C.To give climate-based information for different sectors
D.To make carbon offsetting mandatory for companies
Solution
NFCS 2024
The NFCS, coordinated by the India Meteorological Department, follows the WMO’s Global Framework for Climate Services.
Its goal is to co-develop and deliver reliable climate information for sectors like agriculture, water, health, energy and disaster management.
Hence option (c).
49
How is Argon gas naturally produced in the Earth's crust?
A.By the radioactive decay of Potassium-40 (K-40)
B.By volcanic eruptions
C.Through photosynthesis in plants
D.By the action of cosmic rays
Solution
Argon from K-40 decay
Argon-40, the dominant isotope of atmospheric argon, forms by the radioactive decay of Potassium-40 through electron capture.
This K–Ar decay in crustal rocks is also the basis of potassium–argon dating in geology.
Hence option (a).
50
Which statement correctly explains the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs)?
A.Both can be enforced by the courts.
B.DPSPs are more powerful than Fundamental Rights.
C.Fundamental Rights are optional, while DPSPs are compulsory.
D.Fundamental Rights can be enforced by courts, but DPSPs cannot.
Solution
FRs vs DPSPs
Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable — a citizen can move the courts, including under Article 32, for their enforcement.
DPSPs (Part IV) are non-justiciable by Article 37: fundamental in governance but not enforceable by any court.
Hence option (d).
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