SSC CGL 16 September 2025 · Shift 3 · General Awareness — questions with answers · ShikshaSphere
Chapter 58 of 192
16 September 2025 · Shift 3
General Awareness
25 questions ~25 min readFree
25 questions
A
26
Examine the following statements regarding Perini Shivatandavam:
1. It is a warrior dance form that has been revived in contemporary times.
2. Its origin traces back to the royal court of the Chola dynasty in Tamil Nadu.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Only 2 is correct
B.Both 1 and 2 are correct
C.Only 1 is correct
D.Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Solution
Perini Shivatandavam
Perini Shivatandavam is an ancient warrior dance performed by men before going to battle — revived in modern times by Nataraja Ramakrishna — Statement 1 correct.
It belongs to TELANGANA and flourished under the KAKATIYA rulers, not the Cholas of Tamil Nadu — Statement 2 wrong.
It is dedicated to Lord Shiva as Nataraja.
Hence Only 1 — option (c).
27
Identify the distinct architectural element commonly associated with the Capuchin Church design style:
A.Multi-storey shikhara tower
B.Flat arched entrance topped with a pediment
C.Complex traceried rose windows
D.Ornate spires and domes
Solution
Capuchin church style
Capuchin churches follow the order’s vow of simplicity — plain facades with little ornament.
Their hallmark is a flat arched doorway crowned by a simple triangular pediment.
Elaborate rose windows, spires and domes belong to Gothic and Baroque styles.
Hence option (b).
28
Which of the following statements highlights a lesser-known symbolic connection of Teej with nature and mythology?
A.The word "Teej" is derived from a red insect that appears during the monsoon.
B.Teej is officially celebrated as a public holiday across all northern states in the month of Aadi.
C."Teej" signifies a lunar goddess symbolizing fertility and rainfall.
D.The act of swinging during Teej represents the lunar rhythm and Shiva's cosmic dance.
Solution
Teej — the insect
The festival takes its name from the small red velvet insect (teej) that emerges from the soil with the first monsoon rains.
Its appearance signals the arrival of rain and greenery, which the festival celebrates.
Teej is chiefly linked to Parvati’s devotion to Shiva, not to a lunar goddess.
Hence option (a).
29
During the Gupta period, what was the primary role of the Mahasandhivigrahika in the royal administration?
A.Head of judicial affairs dealing with land and property disputes
B.Officer in charge of irrigation systems and revenue management
C.Foreign affairs minister who advised the king and coordinated with the army
D.Administrator responsible for temple grants and religious activities
Solution
Mahasandhivigrahika
The title literally means the great (maha) officer of peace (sandhi) and war (vigraha).
He was the minister for FOREIGN AFFAIRS — advising on treaties, alliances and war, and coordinating with the army.
Harisena, who composed the Allahabad Prashasti, held this office under Samudragupta.
Hence option (c).
30
In the context of traditional Kashmiri music, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A.Chakri - A classical composition accompanied by Santoor and Hafiz Nagma
B.Sufiana Music - A folk melody performed with instruments like Garaha and Rabab
C.Hafiz Nagma - A dance form performed to the rhythmic tunes of Sufiana music
D.Rouf - An instrumental performance combining Santoor and Sitar
Solution
Hafiz Nagma
Hafiz Nagma is the dance performed by a female dancer (hafiza) to Sufiana Mausiqi — correctly matched.
Sufiana Mausiqi is the CLASSICAL music of Kashmir (santoor, saz-e-Kashmir), not a folk melody.
Chakri is the popular FOLK music with harmonium, rabab and garaha; Rouf is a women’s dance.
Hence option (c).
31
In a pole vault event, an athlete is disqualified after how many consecutive unsuccessful attempts?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.1
Solution
Pole vault — 3 attempts
In pole vault (as in high jump) an athlete gets three attempts at a height.
Three CONSECUTIVE failures end the athlete’s participation.
The best height cleared before that stands as the result.
Hence 3 — option (b).
32
Which of the following dynasties is correctly paired with the main region of its rule during early medieval India?
A.Gurjara-Pratiharas - Western Deccan
B.Rashtrakutas - Gujarat and Rajasthan
C.Palas - Bengal region
D.Cholas - Northern India
Solution
Palas — Bengal
The Palas ruled Bengal and Bihar from the 8th to the 12th century — correctly matched.
The Gurjara-Pratiharas held Gujarat–Rajasthan and Kannauj; the Rashtrakutas the western DECCAN.
The Cholas ruled the far south from Tanjore.
Hence option (c).
33
After Australia stepped back from organizing the 2026 Commonwealth Games, which city was chosen as the new host venue?
A.Toronto
B.Glasgow
C.Birmingham
D.Victoria
Solution
CWG 2026 — Glasgow
Victoria (Australia) withdrew in 2023 citing rising costs.
Glasgow, Scotland was then confirmed as host of the 2026 Commonwealth Games.
Glasgow had also hosted the 2014 edition.
Hence option (b).
34
Through which corridor does India improve its connectivity to Central Asia via the Chabahar Port?
A.East-West Corridor
B.India-Myanmar Highway
C.North-South Transport Corridor
D.South Asian Maritime Path
Solution
INSTC via Chabahar
The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) links India to Iran, Central Asia and Russia.
Chabahar port in Iran is India’s gateway on this route, bypassing Pakistan.
It shortens transit time and cost to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
Hence option (c).
35
Avni Doshi's Burnt Sugar, which was shortlisted for the 2020 Booker Prize, primarily revolves around which central theme?
A.A romantic story set in pre-independence India
B.A political suspense narrative based in Delhi
C.The intricate and strained relationship between a mother and daughter
D.A historical account of India-Persia trade ties
Solution
'Burnt Sugar'
Burnt Sugar (published in India as Girl in White Cotton) follows Antara and her ageing mother Tara.
It explores memory, resentment and the strained bond between mother and daughter.
It reached the Booker Prize shortlist in 2020.
Hence option (c).
36
On the occasion of World Environment Day 2025, which initiative was highlighted by Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan to encourage mass tree plantation?
A.Plastic-Free India Mission
B.Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0 drive
C.Clean Ganga Youth Campaign
D.National Coastal Cleanup Mission
Solution
Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0
The campaign Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam, launched in 2024, entered its second phase in 2025.
On World Environment Day 2025 the Education Ministry urged schools and colleges to join the 2.0 drive.
Students plant a sapling in their mother’s name.
Hence option (b).
37
According to the Census of 2011, what percentage of India's total population resided in urban areas?
A.41%
B.24%
C.31%
D.36%
Solution
Urban population 2011
Census 2011 counted about 37.7 crore urban residents out of 121 crore.
That is roughly 31% (31.16%) of the population.
The remaining 69% lived in rural areas.
Hence option (c).
38
The Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) being developed by ISRO is designed to carry a maximum payload of how many tonnes to Low Earth Orbit (LEO)?
A.40 tonnes
B.20 tonnes
C.30 tonnes
D.10 tonnes
Solution
NGLV — 30 tonnes
NGLV (Soorya) is ISRO’s heavy-lift, partly reusable rocket for future missions.
It is designed to place about 30 tonnes in Low Earth Orbit — nearly three times LVM3’s capacity.
It will support the Bharatiya Antariksh Station and crewed lunar plans.
Hence option (c).
39
The Yonex-Sunrise India Open 2025, listed as a BWF Super 750 badminton event, was held when and where?
A.At Thyagaraj Stadium, New Delhi, from January 10 to 15 as part of the BWF World Tour
B.At Siri Fort Sports Complex, New Delhi, from January 12 to 17 under the BWF Super Series
C.At K.D. Jadhav Indoor Hall, IG Stadium, New Delhi, from January 14 to 19 as a BWF Super 750 tournament
D.At Talkatora Indoor Stadium, New Delhi, from January 16 to 21 under the India Badminton Circuit
Solution
India Open 2025
The India Open 2025 was played at the K.D. Jadhav Indoor Hall, Indira Gandhi Stadium, New Delhi.
It ran from 14 to 19 January 2025 as a BWF World Tour Super 750 event.
Super 750 is among the highest tiers of the BWF World Tour.
Hence option (c).
40
Situated near a major coal belt, the historic Sindri fertilizer plant - one of India's earliest large-scale fertilizer units - is located in which Indian state?
A.West Bengal
B.Odisha
C.Jharkhand
D.Bihar
Solution
Sindri — Jharkhand
The Sindri fertilizer plant lies in the Dhanbad district of JHARKHAND, next to the Jharia coalfield.
Commissioned in 1951, it was independent India’s first large fertilizer factory.
It was revived as a modern urea unit in 2024.
Hence option (c).
41
Which of the following options shows the correct sequence of genetic information transfer within a cell?
A.DNA → Protein → RNA
B.RNA → DNA → Protein
C.DNA → RNA → Protein
D.Protein → RNA → DNA
Solution
Central dogma
This is the CENTRAL DOGMA of molecular biology, given by Francis Crick.
DNA is transcribed into RNA, and RNA is translated into protein.
So the flow is DNA → RNA → Protein.
Hence option (c).
42
Under the Indian Constitution, Article 268 mainly pertains to which of the following fiscal arrangements?
A.Service tax imposed by the Union and collected by the States
B.Income tax imposed and collected by the States
C.Stamp duties levied by the Union but collected and retained by the States
D.Excise duties on medicinal goods collected by the States
Solution
Article 268
Article 268 covers duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.
Stamp duties on bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes etc. fall here.
The proceeds do not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Hence option (c).
43
A sound wave travels through a medium at 340 m/s with a frequency of 680 Hz. What will be its wavelength?
A.0.5 m
B.2 m
C.20 m
D.50 m
Solution
Wavelength = v/f
Wave relation: v = f λ.
λ = = .
= 0.5.
Hence 0.5 m — option (a).
44
The Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) has been launched by the Government of India with which main objective?
A.Development of export-related infrastructure
B.Establishment of cold storage facilities for the dairy sector
C.Providing financial support under the PMFBY scheme
D.Regulating the pricing of pharmaceutical products
Solution
TIES scheme
TIES (2017, Ministry of Commerce) funds export infrastructure — border haats, testing labs, cold chains for exports, trade promotion centres.
It assists central and state agencies with grants for such projects.
The aim is to close the last-mile gaps that raise export costs.
Hence option (a).
45
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer using the code below:Assertion (A): The Global Happiness Index takes into account factors like political freedom and social support.
Reason (R): It is released annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
A.Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
B.Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C.A is true, but R is false.
D.A is false, but R is true.
Solution
Happiness Index (A–R)
The World Happiness Report scores countries on GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom, generosity and corruption — A is true.
It is published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), not the UNDP — R is false.
The Human Development Report is the UNDP publication.
Hence option (c).
46
In the context of India's climate strategy, why is the enhancement of carbon sinks considered vital?
A.To promote large-scale deforestation
B.To capture and store carbon dioxide in forests, vegetation, and soil
C.To increase the use of fossil fuels for energy production
Carbon sinks
A carbon sink absorbs more carbon than it releases — forests, soil and oceans are the main ones.
India’s NDC promises an extra sink of 2.5–3 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent by 2030 through forest and tree cover.
Deforestation and fossil fuels do the opposite.
Hence option (b).
47
Examine the statements below and select the correct answer:Assertion (A): During the early planning period, India followed a policy of import substitution.
Reason (R): The objective was to safeguard newly emerging domestic industries from external competition.
A.Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
B.Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A.
C.A is true, but R is false.
D.A is false, but R is true.
Solution
Import substitution (A–R)
From the Second Plan onwards India replaced imports with domestic production behind high tariffs and quotas — A is true.
The stated aim was to protect infant industries until they matured — R is true.
That protection motive is exactly why import substitution was adopted, so R explains A.
Hence option (a).
48
With reference to celestial phenomena, consider the following statements:
1. Black holes release X-rays directly from their event horizon.
2. Pulsars are neutron stars that spin at very high speeds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Solution
Black holes & pulsars
Nothing — not even light — escapes from inside the event horizon; the X-rays come from the superheated ACCRETION DISC outside it — Statement 1 wrong.
Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars whose beams sweep past us like a lighthouse — Statement 2 correct.
Some spin hundreds of times per second.
Hence Only 2 — option (b).
49
During a National Emergency, which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws on matters enumerated in the State List?
A.Article 250
B.Article 256
C.Article 254
D.Article 352
Solution
Article 250
Article 250 lets Parliament legislate on State List subjects while a Proclamation of Emergency is in force.
Such laws stay valid for six months after the Emergency ends.
Article 352 declares the Emergency itself; Article 254 deals with repugnancy.
Hence option (a).
50
With reference to Article 131A of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. It conferred exclusive authority on High Courts to determine the constitutionality of central laws.
2. The provision was abolished through the 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Solution
Article 131A
Article 131A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment (1976), gave the SUPREME COURT — not the High Courts — exclusive power over the constitutional validity of central laws — Statement 1 wrong.
The 43rd Amendment Act, 1977 repealed Article 131A — Statement 2 correct.
The repeal restored the High Courts’ power of judicial review.
Hence Only 2 — option (b).
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